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She's never experienced an orgasm - is there a logical explanation for this?

Tagged as: Dating, Sex<< Previous question   Next question >>
Question - (18 May 2008) 1 Answers - (Newest, 19 May 2008)
A male Nigeria age 41-50, anonymous writes:

My girlfriend said, she'd before or she doesn't know if she's had one with any of her previous boyfriends.

Is there something wrong with her, and is there a logical explanation for this?

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A male reader, DoubleM United States +, writes (19 May 2008):

DoubleM agony auntUnfortunately for women around the world, it is not unusual for many to never or very rarely experience a full orgasm. It has been estimated that 60 percent or more go through life without orgasm, which if accurate, represents the majority.

The reason for this sad situation may be debatable, but in my opinion - and based on accredited research such as Masters & Johnson - the cause is usually due to no fault of the women. Instead, it is due to a lack of sexual foreplay and impatience on the part of their male partners - who more often expect that a brief session of vaginal intercourse satisfies the woman. Apparently, such limited performance on the part of most men is insufficient to fully (sexually) satisfy a majority of women.

The result of the studies by Masters & Johnson, and more recently by many others, is that women often require a great deal more sexual stimulation (than they typically receive) to reach a level of arousal that would bring about orgasm. Apparently, most men either do not understand female sexuality, or they choose not to invest the time and techniques that are most likely to fully please their women.

Simply stated, a fairly brief session of intercourse or oral sex may please a male partner, but leaves a majority of women less than satisfied, although the women may experience a limited degree of pleasure.

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