A
male
age
51-59,
*hodogg
writes:OK, now this is not a trick question but rather a gathering of consensus among gender specific -especially female- opinions: When a woman start off kissing a man and it escalates to the man rummaging his hands all over the woman's body, then the next thing you know they're out of their swim suits, the woman is twisting and turning, moaning in very delicate "airy breaths" all the while the man penetrates her vagina with his penis. [MOD NOTE: paragraph has been edited out due to explicit content. Basic idea is woman is enjoying greatly using sexual phrases while also saying "stop"]while the woman said "stop at least two times she herself kept on counter trusting and ultimately climaxed (had an orgasm).A week later can the woman then cry rape? Also the whole affair would have been recorded via security cameras (with audio of course)
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Fancy yourself as an agony aunt? Add your answer to this question! A
male
reader, anonymous, writes (7 August 2009): as far as i am aware rape is where one of them is non consenting, via bodily language and verbal. she has not been described as non consenting.
A
reader, anonymous, writes (6 August 2009): Unfortunately, women can do a lot of things in this area that men 'cannot' and get away with it.
A man and a woman can have sexual intercourse and the woman orgasms, then tells the man to stop. If the man doesn't stop, then the woman can call rape and in most cases, get away with it. However, if they have sexual intercourse and the woman asks to stop moments afterwards and the man doesn't stop, it can be called rape as well.
The first is within an unethical grey area and the second can be a more obvious rape scenario.
However, there was a case I was watching a few years ago that the judge ruled in favor of the man, when sexual intercourse was initiated, accepted and went through until the woman orgasmed, told the man to stop but the man didn't and she called rape. The reasoning is due to the factor of initiation, acceptance and following through with it. It has to do with ethics. Unfortunately, I do not have the correct term or phrase for this particular reasoning as the judge put it.
Know that even if the woman has an orgasm, but she has repeatedly said no, then it can be called rape - even if her actions were opposite of her verbal 'rejection'.
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