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female
,
anonymous
writes: Seems a strange question but I can't really get a feel on the web and thought i would ask in here. I have had sex with a man on quite a few occasions over the last year, we're not in a relationship and never will be, my question is about him ejaculating.With previous men I've had sex with when they have cum i experienced "leakage" due to the quantity of semen ejaculated, but with this man there was none. It is that he wasn't having an orgasm (it also didn't seem obvious) - or is just that some men don't ejaculate that much?If I compare to an ex bf I felt him pulsing when he had cum and it seemed obvious, well this man's penis is smaller so is this why it's less obvious?Or did he just not cum at all?Curious!!!
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ejaculate, orgasm, semen Reply to this Question
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Fancy yourself as an agony aunt? Add your answer to this question! A
reader, anonymous, writes (18 September 2006): Yes, different men ejaculate different amounts. Also the quantity can be affected by how frequently they ejaculate, the longer the time, the more that should be ejaculated.
A
female
reader, anonymous, writes (17 September 2006): Thanks Soulsista
I was just curious because it seemed strange - it's a bit hard to ask a man "did you cum" in case he suddenly thinks i'm saying somethings wrong with him!
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A
female
reader, xxxsoulsistaxxx  +, writes (17 September 2006):
 Well there's always the possibility he didn't come at all! But provided he did, some men just have less semen coming out than others. Smaller penises will obviously be felt less by the woman so that's nothing to worry about either.
They're all different and it's nothing to worry about. Some have lot's, some have a little, some are obvious, some are subtle . . . we just can't keep up!
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